Final exam study guide

Note sure how well my study guide's formatt will translate (no punn intended) onto this blog but here goes...


Chapter 9 Cellular Respiration
1. Glycolysis (net) yields about ____ ATP and ETS yields ______.
2. Which process produces both NADH and FADH2?
3 Which process produces alcohol or lactate?
4. Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water?
5. One turn of the Krebs cycle produces
6. This is a thinker question: A young relative of yours has never had much energy. He goes to a doctor for help and is sent to the hospital for some tests. There they discover his mitochondria can use only fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. Of the following, which is the best explanation of his condition?
7. Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which general pathway?
8) The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is
9) Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration?
10) The reducing agent in alcohol fermentation is:
11) Which of the following statements is (are) correct about an oxidation-reduction (or redox) reaction?
12. Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? Think oxidation/reduction

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

13. Which of the following statements about NAD+ is false?
14. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis are
15. Starting with citrate, how many of the following would be produced with three turns of the citric acid cycle?
16. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?
17. Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from which of the following?
18. During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where does the oxygen for the synthesis of the water come from?
19. During aerobic cellular respiration, a proton gradient in mitochondria is generated by ________ and used primarily for ________.
20. Which process could be compared to how rushing steam turns a water wheel?
21. Assume a mitochondrion contains 58 NADH and 19 FADH2. If each of these 77 dinucleotides were used, approximately how many ATP molecules could be generated as a result of oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)?

Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle…the following questions pertain to the CELL CYCLE NOT Meiosis!
22) If there are 10 sets of sister chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

The lettered circles in Figure 12.1 show a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated (this is the 2n number). Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following stages. Note not all options are used.


Figure 12.1



25) A cell containing 92 individual chromosomes (or 46 sister chromatid sets) at metaphase of mitosis would produce two nuclei containing how many chromosomes at its completion?
26) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell at the end of the cell cycle?
27) Which of the following organisms does not reproduce cells by the cell cycle?
28) The correct sequence of steps on the M phase of the cell cycle is
29) What kind of nuclear division does a somatic cell undergo?
30) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells?

The questions below consist of five phrases or sentences concerned with the cell cycle. For each one, select the answer below that is most closely related to it. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. M (mitosis)

33) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by
34) A particular cyclin called “cyclin E” forms a complex with a cyclin-dependent kinase called “Cdk 2” (so these are just two different types of cyclins and Cdk’s). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct?
35) Which of the following is the purpose of a polar body? 36) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed in the preparation of a karyotype? HINT it is best to karyotype chromosomes once they are fully condensed 37) If the somatic liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do its sperm cells have? Chapter 12 and 13 mitosis and meiosis questions

38) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? 39) When does the synaptonemal complex disappear? 40) What is the end result of the process of meiosis I and II? The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below. You will be asked to answer questions based on the numbered statements below…..
1. formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus 2. alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate 3. separation of sister chromatids 4. separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere 5. synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs
43) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
44) Independent assortment is mostly affected by
45) Which of the following statements about crossing over is incorrect?
46) What name is given to the process that restores the diploid number of chromosomes present in gametes?
47) Homologous chromosomes migrate to opposite poles during ______________ of meiosis
48) A human cell containing 22 different autosomes and one Y chromosome is
49) Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
50. To what does the term chiasmata refer?
51. At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid?
52. Interkinesis is different from interphase in which way?
53. Why do polar bodies form?
Matching: Match the correct definition to the correct vocabulary word
54. Anchorage Dependence
55. Density-Dependent Inhibition
56. Growth Factor (MPF Molecule)
57. Metastasis
58. Tumor
59. Cancer Cells
60. Tumor suppressing genes
Chapter 14 and 15
61. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, which generation is always completely heterozygous?
62. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, which generation is always completely homozygous?
63. In 1940, two researchers named Weiner and Landsteiner discovered that about 85 percent of the human population sampled possessed a blood cell protein that had been previously detected in Rhesus monkeys. This blood type was labeled Rh positive, and Rh+ was found to be dominant over the absence of the blood factor (Rh ). Under normal Mendelian inheritance, which of the following statements is FALSE?
64. Since each child of two heterozygous parents has a 1/4 chance of receiving a recessive trait from each parent,
65. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F2 offspring?
66. A testcross involves an individual exhibiting the dominant phenotype but an unknown genotype being crossed with an individual that has a(n) ___________ genotype.
67. If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? The second parent?
68. Of the following which is not an autosomal dominant disorder?
69. A classical example of incomplete dominance is
70. A classical example of epistasis is
71. A classical example of multiple alleles is
72. Which of the following is a disorder in which the person has a mucus build up in their lungs? Hint, it is autosomal recessive)
73. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation often a bell-shaped curve–because genes at many loci are involved?
74. Which disease results in deformed red blood cells, poor circulation, and anemia?
75. When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?
76. Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny (offspring) of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
77. A couple has three children, all of whom have brown eyes and blond hair. Both parents are homozygous for brown eyes (BB), but one is a blond (rr) and the other is a redhead (Rr). What is the probability that their next child will be a brown-eyed redhead?
78. In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype (don’t get tricked by this question, I am asking for a genotype NOT a phenotype) AABBCC?
79. A woman who has blood type A, has a daughter who is type O and a son who is type B. Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son?
80. A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is (Don’t let this one trick you! Remember the laws of probability. If you flip a coin 3 times and got all heads, what is the chance you will get tails on the next flip?)
81. A human male has ____ chromosomes with ____ sex chromosomes.
82. Which statement is NOT true about X linked characteristics?
83. Which of these terms would be equivalent to 3n chromosomes? Remember, this is not n+1…………..
84. Which refers to turning a chromosome segment around 180º and rejoining it to the original chromosome?
85. Karyotyping alone, can be used to diagnose which of the following genetic disorders?
86. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed
87. Which sex chromosome anomaly is correctly associated with the proper genotype?
88. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?
89. In humans, X-linked diseases include all of the following EXCEPT

Decide whether the following statements apply to amniocentesis “A” or chorionic Villa Sampling “B”

Chapter 16 and 17
95) Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA. Approximately, what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? 96) The DNA double helix has a uniform diameter because ________, which have two rings, always pair with ________, which have one ring. 97) Which of the following statements does not apply to the current model of DNA’s structure? 98) What determines the nucleotide sequence of the daughter strand that is made during DNA replication? 99) What is the function/role of both DNA polymerase I and III? In other words, what do they have in common?
Refer to the following list of enzymes to answer the following questions. The answers may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. helicase B. nuclease C. ligase D. DNA polymerase I E. primase
105) The Y-shaped region where the DNA double helix is actively unwound during DNA replication is called the
106) What kind of molecule or substance is the primer that is used to initiate the synthesis of a new DNA strand? 107) What is the function of topoisomerase?
108) What is one of the roles of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strands during DNA replication? 109) Which of the following statements about telomeres is correct? 110) In the orientation of a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the sugar's ________ carbon and the phosphate group is attached to the sugar's ________ carbon. 111) A biochemist isolates and purifies various molecules/enzymes needed for DNA replication. When she adds some DNA, replication occurs, but each DNA consists of a normal DNA strand paired with numerous segments of DNA. What has she probably left out of the mixture?
112) Synthesis of a new DNA strand usually begins with the addition of
113. The polypeptide making organelles residing in the cytoplasm are called
114. Amino acids are transported to the ribosome for use in building the polypeptide by
115. The process in which a RNA polymerase molecule assembles an mRNA molecule whose nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA sequence is called
116. Which of the following pairs with adenine in RNA?
117. The nucleotide sequence of a mRNA codon is composed of how many bases?
118. Ribosomes are complex arrangements of
119. The sites A, P, and E are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a chain in protein synthesis. These sites are part of
120. Each amino acid has a specific tRNA molecule that can transport it to the site of protein synthesis. Therefore, in humans the number of different tRNA molecules would be roughly
121. In eukaryotic cells, mRNA is made as a copy of the DNA coding information in the
122. The enzyme that initiates transcription once all other things are in place is
123. The tRNA nucleotide sequence that lines up on the mRNA is called
124. Ribosome movement on the mRNA transcript is called
125. The bond that forms between the newly added amino acid and the previous amino acid on the chain is called a
126. The initiation complex for protein synthesis contains all of the following except
127. The location of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells is the
128 The site from where the empty RNA molecules exit the ribosome is the
129 The Central Dogma of biology or gene expression is stated as
130. Which of the following answers best identifies the types of RNA associated with ribosomes during protein synthesis?
131) If the triplet CCC codes for the amino acid proline in bacteria, then in plants CCC should code for 132) Which of the following is not a part of the eukaryotic transcription initiation complex?
133) Which of the following is least related to the other items? 134. If the DNA triplet code were 3’ATG-CGT 5’, the tRNA anticodons would be
135) What is a ribozyme? 136) A mutation in which of the following parts of a gene is likely to be most damaging to a cell’s protein production? 137) Which of the following is (are) true of snRNPs?
138) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary protein depends on specificity in the….
139) Suppose the following DNA sequence was mutated from 3' AGAGAGAGAGAGAGAGAG 5' to 3' AGAAGAGAGATCGAGAGA 5'. What amino acid sequence will be generated based on this mutated DNA? 140) As a ribosome translocates along an mRNA molecule by one codon, which of the following occurs?
141. RNA splicing in eukaryotic cell protein synthesis means
A. that the product of translation, called the primary transcript is cut and put back together to produce the mature mRNA transcript
B. that the product of transcription, called the secondary transcript is cut and put back together to produce the mature tRNA transcript
C. that the product of translation, called the primary transcript is cut and put back together to produce the mature tRNA transcript
D. that the product of transcription, called the primary transcript is cut and put back together to produce the mature mRNA transcript
E. All of the above
142) The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? 143) Which of the following does not occur during the termination phase of translation? 144) What are polyribosomes?
145) What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?
146) A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be 147) What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? What is the sequence of a peptide based on the mRNA sequence 5' UUUUCUUAUUGUCUU 3'
148. RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase differ in that
149. All of the following are directly involved in translation except
150. A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is 3’AAA 5’. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is
151. What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule that causes it to fold among itself making that “clover” looking shape?
153. Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence.
1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site. 2. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain. 3. tRNA leaves the P site, and the P site remains vacant. 4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA. 5. tRNA translocates to the P site.

Matching: Match the scientist to the following phrases below. Options may be used once, more than once or not at all.
a. Griffith
b. Hershey and Chase
c. Chargaff’s
d. Franklin,Watson and Crick:
e. Meselson and Stahl
Matching: Match the following types of mutations to the definitions below. Note, options may be used once, more than once or not at all.

a. Point mutation
b. Base-pair substitution
c. Missense mutation
d. Nonsense mutation
e. Frameshift mutation
Ab. Insertion
Ac. Deletion
Ad. Mutagens